Hello,
We're in the process of implementing scalability and the model we're planning has some uniqueness that I'm looking to validate (i.e. variation from the doc/diagram in webhelp). We'll be using a hardware load balancer, with two machines combining a web server and an app server, two separate machines with report servers, and a separate machine running the database server.
The load balancer would be distributing the incoming requests to the two web servers. The app servers would be configured in Active-Failover mode (a.k.a. active-passive). Both web servers would send the incoming requests to the active app server. Control of which app server is active and which is in failover mode would be handled by the OTM SCA functionality (the load balancer would not be involved). The report server machines are off to the side (each app server has one) - they may be using a Dataguard copy of the DB.
The main point I'm looking to validate is that the load balancer distributing requests to the two web servers is not going to cause problems with OTM's scalability model - which may be expecting only one web server (?). And that having the two web servers, each residing on the same physical machine as an app server, will likewise not cause problems with the OTM Active-Failover model.
Also, there is another school of thought that the load balancer should be in control of which app server is the active one. However, I think this would be outside of OTM's scalability model and would not provide the seamless failover of the user's sessions in the event of an app server failure. Thoughts on this?
Thanks and Regards,
Scott T.
We're in the process of implementing scalability and the model we're planning has some uniqueness that I'm looking to validate (i.e. variation from the doc/diagram in webhelp). We'll be using a hardware load balancer, with two machines combining a web server and an app server, two separate machines with report servers, and a separate machine running the database server.
The load balancer would be distributing the incoming requests to the two web servers. The app servers would be configured in Active-Failover mode (a.k.a. active-passive). Both web servers would send the incoming requests to the active app server. Control of which app server is active and which is in failover mode would be handled by the OTM SCA functionality (the load balancer would not be involved). The report server machines are off to the side (each app server has one) - they may be using a Dataguard copy of the DB.
The main point I'm looking to validate is that the load balancer distributing requests to the two web servers is not going to cause problems with OTM's scalability model - which may be expecting only one web server (?). And that having the two web servers, each residing on the same physical machine as an app server, will likewise not cause problems with the OTM Active-Failover model.
Also, there is another school of thought that the load balancer should be in control of which app server is the active one. However, I think this would be outside of OTM's scalability model and would not provide the seamless failover of the user's sessions in the event of an app server failure. Thoughts on this?
Thanks and Regards,
Scott T.
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